Obviously the area is more intricate than I can state in a couple of blog posts and I know a great issue of contention is the definition of positive and negative rights. Perhaps the term 'negative rights' is misleading and it would probably clarify the issue to say that they are not a type of right at all, but simply a lack of postive rights.
With reference to lawmaking the distinction between positive rights and their absence should be clear. As Murray Rothbard states:
"It is not the business of the law to make anyone good or revant or moral or clean or upright."